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Ok
See if you can work this out.
IF there are an infinate number of numbers between 1 and 2.
There are even more numbers between 1 and 4.
How many numbers are there between 1 and 4?
Well....
See if you can work this out.
IF there are an infinate number of numbers between 1 and 2.
There are even more numbers between 1 and 4.
How many numbers are there between 1 and 4?
Well....
The whole point of infinity is that infinity + infinity = infinity.
Simillarly, infinity - infinity = infinity.
It is an all-consuming number that absorbs anything you throw at it and is still unchanged, like a black hole in many ways.
Simillarly, infinity - infinity = infinity.
It is an all-consuming number that absorbs anything you throw at it and is still unchanged, like a black hole in many ways.
infinity is just a concept, i.e a number larger than you can think of.
so while there are an infinite number of numbers between 1 and 2 which are each infinitesimally different from the last number, there are also an infinite number of numbers between 1 and 4.
The answer is still infinity, because infinity has no defined value.
(there is some mathmatics theory that says there are 3 types of infinity,...... 1. something infinitely small..... 2.something infinitely large.... 3. something is bigger than infinity)
so while there are an infinite number of numbers between 1 and 2 which are each infinitesimally different from the last number, there are also an infinite number of numbers between 1 and 4.
The answer is still infinity, because infinity has no defined value.
(there is some mathmatics theory that says there are 3 types of infinity,...... 1. something infinitely small..... 2.something infinitely large.... 3. something is bigger than infinity)
Let's call the numbers between 1 and 2 'x' and the numbers between 1 and 4 'y'.
As howarrob said, x = infinity.
because 4 = 2x2 we get:
y = 2x.
... And because infinity is like zero: anything mulitplied by itself is still infinity, we get:
x = y
but clearly, x < y !
so it all disappeares in a puff of logic and we spend the rest of our lives working this out...
As howarrob said, x = infinity.
because 4 = 2x2 we get:
y = 2x.
... And because infinity is like zero: anything mulitplied by itself is still infinity, we get:
x = y
but clearly, x < y !
so it all disappeares in a puff of logic and we spend the rest of our lives working this out...
Technically there are more because the numbers just go on and on and on and never stop but if you're going to be like that there are 2x the amount of numbers between 1 and 4 that there are betweem 1 and 2.
Sort of.
:0)
Actually the awnser Infinite
Sort of.
:0)
Actually the awnser Infinite
howarrob wrote:
> Ok
> See if you can work this out.
>
> IF there are an infinate number of numbers between 1 and 2.
> There are even more numbers between 1 and 4.
> How many numbers are there between 1 and 4?
>
> Well....
I'm tempted to say an infinite amount if it's the same for one and two.
> Ok
> See if you can work this out.
>
> IF there are an infinate number of numbers between 1 and 2.
> There are even more numbers between 1 and 4.
> How many numbers are there between 1 and 4?
>
> Well....
I'm tempted to say an infinite amount if it's the same for one and two.